content: I was gonna say "not necessarily", but then I looked at the area code. CA is indeed an "all-party consent required" state. Edit:  Cal. Penal Code § 632(a)-(d); Kearney v. Salomon Smith Barney Inc., 39 Cal.4th 95 (Cal. 2006); Kight v. CashCall, Inc., 200 Cal. App. 4th 1377 (2011); Cal. Pub. Util. Code Gen. Order 107-B(II)(A); Air Transp. Ass’n of Am. v. Pub. Utilities Comm'n of State of Cal., 833 F.2d 200 (9th Cir. 1987).  Which, according to Matthiesen, Wickert, & Lehrer, S.C.(bottom of Page 2) translates to  "All parties must give their consent to be recorded. However, The California Supreme Court has ruled that if a caller in a one-party state records a conversation with someone in California, that one-party state caller is subject to the stricter of the laws and must have consent from all callers."  But the interesting bit is the following:  "Although California is a two-party state, it is also legal to record a conversation if an audible beep is included on the recorder and for the parties to hear."  Take that how you will.