Yes, Laura, you c/p this and doing it again does neither answer questions nor offer avenues for further discourse.  Take a simple look at the thing Q posted about the antifa flags.  To me it does not make sense. So, I am going from the position that the questions Q posted, as I related above, are pointers for serious inquiry.  If so, I have to suppose a common demoninator.  What is the common denominator between commies and national socialists? Or should I pose this question: What are the common denominators between the origins of communism and national socialism?    Or for that matter: communism and Nazi..... What I can think off is this:  Funding. In both cases it was money interests from the US that funded both. To be more precise: the commies, Jews who changed their names, used US money to fund their initial push, after which it was easy to steal it from the 20 million Christians ( orthodox)  who were killed.   The same m.o is visible in Romania, Bulgaria, Hungary, etc. The Checkas,  the commie butchers, were Jews.  In Germany, it was money interest that funded his initial programm to become popular enough in the democratic scene.  That was party funding. This was done in the hopes, a strong man would.come to power, to elevate the country and repay outstanding debts.  The commies in Germany were a very strong party. 90% of them: Jews, so why would the nsdap in 1934, agree to the haavra agreement? Because it was agreed upon by the German Jews and the nsdap.  Not the eastern European Jews.  Factions? But In both cases: where did that money come from?  Why was the UK not living up to it's mandate to create a Jewish homeland in Palestine and transjordan as per the versailles treaty? Why did they allow that homeland to be shrinked?  Why was Jordan established and not attacked as rebels, like the Arab federation was by France? The establishment of the Hashemite Kingdom and the allowance to exist contravenes all peace agreements. SA was OK with a Jewish homeland in transjordan and Palestine. Treaty exists that it would be OK within the framework of the sovereign Arab confederacy. Why did the UK institute a no visum policy, to prevent haavra agreement immigration into Palestine? So, why then, in light of the Haavra agreement, did the NY times front-page in 1933 say: Judea ( which does not exist) declares war on Germany. ( yes, Hitler was not chosen with 90% of the vote) so, why Germany, why not Nsdap?  So, why did Churchill insist on British ging the war to Germany, whether they wanted it or not? Who were the money interests behind Churchill?  Why is it that Germany needed to be totally flattened and become an agricultural country only? What the fuck makes Germanic people so dangerous to certain money interests, they have to be completely raped, demolished, castrated, mixed with other races,  it's culture, morals and values undermined and perverted and enslaved for exploitation by those who do not wish to work like all others?  Are we watching the global battle between two basic modi operandi: how to survive? A host and a parasite?