If food addiction is real, then why is it that only certain foods (high fat, high sugar) are considered addictive?  If these certain foods are really addictive, then why is it that they are not wanted when the body is overfed on foods that don't fall into the addictive category?  If a person is addicted to those foods, shouldn't they be experiencing withdrawal symptoms? Seeking pleasure is not itself indicative of an addiction.  Those very same foods that fatties will claim to be addicted to will cause displeasure and will therefore be avoided when the person has been overfed to the point of sickness, even if those foods were absent from their diet for the period leading up to and during their overfeeding.